So, Hammond acknowledges that the people of Scotland were being unfairly penalised by the VAT levied on Scotland’s emergency services. So, why did the British government persist in this unfair treatment for so long? Why did they only rectify the situation when it became politically expedient for them to do so?

Given that it is acknowledged to be unfair now, it must have always been unfair. So why is the British government refusing to hand over the money previously extorted? Or is the British government claiming that it wasn’t unfair before, but has become so now? In which case, what has changed to make it unfair now when it wasn’t previously?

What arguments were advanced by the British Tories from Scottish constituencies that had not previously been tried by the Scottish Government? What was it about the nature of these arguments which meant that they could only be made by thirteen Tory MPs from Scotland and not one?

Why had these new arguments never occurred to David Mundell? Is he not supposed to be looking after the interests of the people of Scotland? Will he be held accountable for his abject failure?

Most importantly, why are none of these questions being asked by the mainstream media? Why are dishonest, corrupt and incompetent British politicians being shielded by the British media?

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