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Explicit examples are moderately difficult to construct, but it’s not too hard to come up with non-constructive examples; here’s one such.

For $x,y\in\mathbb{R}$ define $x\sim y$ iff $x-y\in \mathbb{Q}$; it’s easy to check that $\sim$ is an equivalence relation on $\mathbb{R}$. For any $x\in\mathbb{R}$, $[x] = \{x+q:q\in\mathbb{Q}\}$, where $[x]$ is the $\sim$-equivalence class of $x$. In particular, each equivalence class is countable. For any infinite cardinal $\kappa$, the union of $\kappa$ pairwise disjoint countably infinite sets has cardinality $\kappa$, so there must be exactly as many equivalence classes as there are real numbers. Let $h$ be a bijection from $\mathbb{R}/\sim$, the set of equivalence classes, to $\mathbb{R}$. Finally, define $$f:(0,1)\to\mathbb{R}:x\mapsto h([x])\;.$$

I claim that if $V$ is any non-empty open subset of $(0,1)$, $f[V]=\mathbb{R}$, which of course ensures that $f$ is open. To see this, just observe that every open interval in $(0,1)$ intersects every equivalence class. (It should be no trouble at all to see that $f$ is wildly discontinuous!)