Context, context, context.

1. Traditional scholars said it was given from the Lord to Moses, but most scholars now say that, in it's final written form at least, it is from the pen of Ezra and the priests who were writing c. 400 B.C. It's possible both sides could be correct about that.

2. Notice carefully 18:3; 18:30; and 20:26. The object is to *separate* the Hebrew people from the customs of the Egyptians and Canaanites. This law is not written for Gentiles or modern Christians; it is written for ancient Jews.

Okay, now for the context.

Two special Hebrew words are used in this passage.

"Toveah" (abomination) usually refers to idolatrous practices that were forbidden.

"Zakar" (male) usually refers to men in a religious or priestly sense.

What is probably being referred to is the custom of ritual same-sex temple prostitution with male pagan priests in the worship of Baal and the gods of Canaan.

Hence, what is being prohibited here is not a loving same-sex union, but idolatrous pagan temple prostitution.

The Canaanite religions had everything to do about sex, so you will notice that all connection with anything sexual made an Israelite ritually "unclean". If a woman had her period, if a woman was pregnant or had just given birth, or if a man ejaculated semen, they were all "unclean" for a period of time.

Why? So that the worship of the Lord would be entirely separate and distinct from the worship of Canaanite gods!

Since they worshiped their gods with orgies, sacrifice of newborn children, and temple prostitution, anything sexual made a Jew "unclean" -- so that the worship of God could *never* be confused with the worship of the false gods of Canaan. I hope that makes sense. It was a "hedge" or a "wall" between the two religions to keep the Israelites separate and distinct.

3. Well, maybe God did tell him these things. Galatians 3:17 -- 4:7 indicates to Christians that Judaism was part of God's plan to *discipline* a people for himself, and to raise up a nation that would give birth to the Messiah.

4. As for Christians, read Galatians 3:28. Notice the third pairing does not use "nor" but rather "and". Neither Jew nor Greek. Neither slave nor free. Nor -- "male *and* female".

The reason it changes to "and" in the third pairing is because Paul is quoting from Genesis 1:27, "God made them male and female".

In other words, gender distinction is part of the old creation. But Christians are a new creation in Christ Jesus, and the old order of "male and female" has nothing to do with our salvation. Genesis 1:27 has been overturned and swept aside by the resurrection of Christ, along with all the Mosaic law.

For us, Christ has simply said, "Love one another as I have loved you" and "Do unto others as you would have them do unto you".

Love is the fulfillment of God's law, and whoever loves is pleasing to God (Romans 13:8-10).

Hope this helps.

EDIT: Hahaha! I see the powerless "thumbs-down" fairy has been through this question.