No because…

In the post, “Positive discrimination towards women should not be allowed”, you stated:



“There is no such thing as ‘international law’ in the USA, except for treaties which are ratified by the Senate.

Consequently, the so-called ‘international law’ must be subservient to USA law and interpreted accordingly.

Thus, positive discrimination does NOT violate international law — because ‘international law’ does NOT exist in the USA.

Women should certainly be granted positive discrimination, and men should give every advantage to them.”



Actually, there is such a thing as international law; and the one’s we are talking about have already been agreed to by the United States Congress. It is not, nor must it be subservient to U.S. law. The United States signed the treaty known as the Charter of the United Nations[1]; wherein the United States agreed to be bound by it’s articles, including chapter IV, wherein the United States agreed to adhere to the resolutions of the General Assembly. One such resolution was the Universal Declaration of Human Rights[2], which stated in Article 2:



“Everyone is entitled to all the rights and freedoms set forth in this Declaration, without distinction of any kind, such as race, colour, sex, language, religion, political or other opinion, national or social origin, property, birth or other status. Furthermore, no distinction shall be made on the basis of the political, jurisdictional or international status of the country or territory to which a person belongs, whether it be independent, trust, non-self-governing or under any other limitation of sovereignty”



One of the rights and freedoms set forth in the declaration, that was alluded to in the post, “Positive discrimination towards women should not be allowed” was the right to be equals before the law, as set out in Article 7, which states:



“All are equal before the law and are entitled without any discrimination to equal protection of the law. All are entitled to equal protection against any discrimination in violation of this Declaration and against any incitement to such discrimination.”



The United States Congress has already signed this treaty and is therefore obliged to comply with it, at the legislative level. That is why ‘positive discrimination’ against men is already in violation of our laws and international law; and, why it can’t be permitted.



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*1- The United Nations Charter



(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/UN_Charter)



*2- The Universal Declaration of Human Rights



(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Universal_Declaration_of_Human_Rights)